United State Medical Licensing Examination (Step 3) Set 19

A54-year-old woman presents to her physician for an opinion regarding additional therapy following curative resection of recently diagnosed colon cancer. She underwent uncomplicated sigmoid resection for invasive colon cancer 4 weeks ago. The pathology revealed carcinoma invading into, but not through, the muscularis propria, with one of eight positive mesenteric nodes. There was no evidence of liver metastases at the time of operation. Preoperative chest x-ray and CT scan of the abdomen showed no evidence of distant disease. Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level was normal. Past history is positive for diabetes and mild hypertension. Examination is unremarkable except for a healing abdominal incision. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation regarding adjuvant therapy?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the physician's office with complaints of constipation. She has had constipation for the last 6 months, which has worsened over the last month, associated with mild bloating. She noted that her stool has become "pencil thin" in the last month, with occasional blood, but she continues to have bowel movements daily. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals normal vital signs and heart and lung examination. Abdominal examination reveals mild fullness, especially in the lower quadrants. Rectal examination shows no rectal masses, but the stool is hematest positive. Abarium xray is obtained, and one view is shown in Figure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the physician's office with complaints of constipation. She has had constipation for the last 6 months, which has worsened over the last month, associated with mild bloating. She noted that her stool has become "pencil thin" in the last month, with occasional blood, but she continues to have bowel movements daily. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals normal vital signs and heart and lung examination. Abdominal examination reveals mild fullness, especially in the lower quadrants. Rectal examination shows no rectal masses, but the stool is hematest positive. Abarium xray is obtained, and one view is shown in Figure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the physician's office for evaluation of a skin lesion on his abdomen. He states that the lesion has been present for 1 year, but has recently enlarged over the last 2 months. The mass is nontender, and he is otherwise asymptomatic. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a 3-cm, pigmented, irregular skin lesion located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, as shown in Figure. Heart, lung, and abdominal examination are normal. There are no palpable cervical, axillary, or inguinal lymph nodes. Chest x-ray and liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old man presents to the physician's office for evaluation of a skin lesion on his abdomen. He states that the lesion has been present for 1 year, but has recently enlarged over the last 2 months. The mass is nontender, and he is otherwise asymptomatic. Past history is unremarkable. Examination reveals a 3-cm, pigmented, irregular skin lesion located in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, as shown in Figure. Heart, lung, and abdominal examination are normal. There are no palpable cervical, axillary, or inguinal lymph nodes. Chest x-ray and liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A75-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital from a nursing home for abdominal pain and pneumonia. She was noted to be short of breath with increasing cough for 2 days before admission. Treatment, consisting of supplemental oxygen, IV antibiotics, and pulmonary toilet, is instituted, with improvement within 2 days. On the third hospital day, her abdominal pain worsens. Examination reveals a mildly distended abdomen with bowel sounds but no signs of peritonitis. Remainder of examination reveals a tender bulge in the medial left thigh below the inguinal ligament. Gentle pressure causes more pain but does not change the size or shape of the bulge. Abdominal films show a nonspecific bowel gas pattern. Laboratory analysis shows a WBC of 13,000, decreased from 18,000 at the time of admission. Which ofthe following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for her yearly physical examination. She has no complaints except for a recent 10-lb weight loss. Past history is pertinent for a 40 pack-year smoking history, hypertension, asthma, and hypothyroidism. Examination reveals a thin woman with normal vital signs and unremarkable heart and abdominal examinations. Lung examination reveals mild wheezing and a few bibasilar rales. A chest x-ray is obtained and is shown in Figure. Achest x-ray obtained 3 years ago was normal. Yearly laboratory tests including a CBC, electrolytes, and lipid panels are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old woman presents to the physician's office for her yearly physical examination. She has no complaints except for a recent 10-lb weight loss. Past history is pertinent for a 40 pack-year smoking history, hypertension, asthma, and hypothyroidism. Examination reveals a thin woman with normal vital signs and unremarkable heart and abdominal examinations. Lung examination reveals mild wheezing and a few bibasilar rales. A chest x-ray is obtained and is shown in Figure. Achest x-ray obtained 3 years ago was normal. Yearly laboratory tests including a CBC, electrolytes, and lipid panels are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?

A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for severe pain in the left flank and back of 1 hour duration. He has a prior history of a myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass grafting 8 years ago. On examination, he is found to have a BP of 80/50 mmHg, pulse rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 15/ min, and a pulsatile, tender abdominal mass. He has had two large-bore IV lines placed by the paramedics. He is alert and oriented, and gives consent for surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for severe pain in the left flank and back of 1 hour duration. He has a prior history of a myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass grafting 8 years ago. On examination, he is found to have a BP of 80/50 mmHg, pulse rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 15/ min, and a pulsatile, tender abdominal mass. He has had two large-bore IV lines placed by the paramedics. He is alert and oriented, and gives consent for surgery. On postoperative day 3, the patient develops dark-colored diarrhea but remains normotensive, on full mechanical ventilation, and is awake. Laboratory analysis reveals normal electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine; hematocrit of 30; and WBC of 15,000. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?